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SimplyScripts Screenwriting Discussion Board    Screenwriting Discussion    Screenwriting Class  ›  The word "O.K." Moderators: George Willson
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  Author    The word "O.K."  (currently 1855 views)
George Willson
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 3:02pm Report to Moderator
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This has come up before, and there's occasionally a dispute on whether it's OK, ok, o.k., okay, or whatever. Modern usage has a lot of variants, but I thought I'd share the origins of this little phrase. My opinion is that regardless of how you spell it, keep it consistent.

Here's the history of it...

OK
1839, only survivor of a slang fad in Boston and New York c.1838-9 for abbreviations of common phrases with deliberate, jocular misspellings (cf. K.G. for "no go," as if spelled "know go"); in this case, "oll korrect." Further popularized by use as an election slogan by the O.K. Club, New York boosters of Democratic president Martin Van Buren's 1840 re-election bid, in allusion to his nickname Old Kinderhook, from his birth in the N.Y. village of Kinderhook. Van Buren lost, the word stuck, in part because it filled a need for a quick way to write an approval on a document, bill, etc. The noun is first attested 1841; the verb 1888. Spelled out as okeh, 1919, by Woodrow Wilson, on assumption that it represented Choctaw okeh "it is so" (a theory which lacks historical documentation); this was ousted quickly by okay after the appearance of that form in 1929. Okey-doke is student slang first attested 1932. Greek immigrants to America who returned home early 20c. having picked up U.S. speech mannerisms were known in Greece as okay-boys, among other things.


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Higgonaitor
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 3:34pm Report to Moderator
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That, I feel, is crazy.

I wonder if in the future there will be words like Jaykay, or beeyarbie, and no one will know the abbreviations that they originated from.


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Xavier
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 4:44pm Report to Moderator
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Wow you must have been bored to actually go over this.  


Those who believe that they are the best, the most popular, the go to guy, those are usually the ones who need the most help.
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Zombie Sean
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 4:53pm Report to Moderator
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Quoted from Higgonaitor
That, I feel, is crazy.

I wonder if in the future there will be words like Jaykay, or beeyarbie, and no one will know the abbreviations that they originated from.


Too late. It's already happened.

Sean
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Split Second
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 5:19pm Report to Moderator
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I agree. It doesn't matter what you do, just keep it consistant.
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steven8
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 8:31pm Report to Moderator
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Quoted from George Willson
This has come up before, and there's occasionally a dispute on whether it's OK, ok, o.k., okay, or whatever. Modern usage has a lot of variants, but I thought I'd share the origins of this little phrase. My opinion is that regardless of how you spell it, keep it consistent.

Here's the history of it...

OK
1839, only survivor of a slang fad in Boston and New York c.1838-9 for abbreviations of common phrases with deliberate, jocular misspellings (cf. K.G. for "no go," as if spelled "know go"); in this case, "oll korrect." Further popularized by use as an election slogan by the O.K. Club, New York boosters of Democratic president Martin Van Buren's 1840 re-election bid, in allusion to his nickname Old Kinderhook, from his birth in the N.Y. village of Kinderhook. Van Buren lost, the word stuck, in part because it filled a need for a quick way to write an approval on a document, bill, etc. The noun is first attested 1841; the verb 1888. Spelled out as okeh, 1919, by Woodrow Wilson, on assumption that it represented Choctaw okeh "it is so" (a theory which lacks historical documentation); this was ousted quickly by okay after the appearance of that form in 1929. Okey-doke is student slang first attested 1932. Greek immigrants to America who returned home early 20c. having picked up U.S. speech mannerisms were known in Greece as okay-boys, among other things.


OK.


...in no particular order
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Don
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 10:22pm Report to Moderator
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George,

That was really interesting.  Thanks for posting that.  On a side, but similar note, I was on a call today and I asked of the presenter, "Could you send the information to John and me." (which is grammatically correct).  Some punk on the call 'corrected' me saying, "it should be 'John and I.'", to which I grammatically ripped him a new asshole regarding 'I' being an subjective pronoun and 'me' being an objective pronoun.  His response was "using 'I' was more 'formal'.  To which I replied, in this case, 'I' isn't formal it is pretentious and wrong.

I suspect that "I" as an objective pronoun is the wave of the future.  

Don


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steven8
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 10:27pm Report to Moderator
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Would it be proper to say, ". . .John and myself."?


...in no particular order
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Old Time Wesley
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 10:28pm Report to Moderator
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Quoted from steven8
My last post was removed?  I didn't think it was bad.  Just joking.  One more variation of OK.  Sorry.  


Check out Rule #9

Make jokes all you want but live by that rule as I am going to delete violations 99.9% of the time.


Practice safe lunch: Use a condiment.
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Don
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 11:10pm Report to Moderator
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So, what are you writing?

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Quoted from Old Time Wesley


Check out Rule #9

Make jokes all you want but live by that rule as I am going to delete violations 99.9% of the time.


The rules: http://www.simplyscripts.net/cgi-bin/Blah/Blah.pl?b=News,m=1080786748


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Don
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 11:19pm Report to Moderator
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So, what are you writing?

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Quoted from steven8
Would it be proper to say, ". . .John and myself."?


Steven,

No, it wouldn't be proper to say "...John and myself. unless "I" is the subject. 'Myself' is only used in objective form when 'I' is the subject. e.g.,

I can only speak for John and myself...
I would never give a gift to myself...
I can only speak for myself...

versus

John would never give a gift to me...
John (the rat bastard) can not speak for me...
Only Fred can speak for John and me...

Anyone who uses "I" as a subjective pronoun and claims it to be "formal" is an ignorant fuck.  


Don







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steven8
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 11:22pm Report to Moderator
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I know the rules.  I just got caught up in the excitement of the moment.  I PM'd Mr. Python with a short explanation and a solemn promise that it will never happen again.

Now. . .Would it be proper to say, ". . .John and myself."?  

Oops, posted at the same time.  Thanks, that makes total sense!


...in no particular order
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Don
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 11:25pm Report to Moderator
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Quoted from steven8


Now. . .Would it be proper to say, ". . .John and myself."?  



Depends on who is the subject.  If "you" are the subject, "I gave this to John and myself" then you are ok.  However, if anyone else, even GOD is the subject then it would be, "God gave this to John and me."

Don



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steven8
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 11:29pm Report to Moderator
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Quoted from Don


Depends on who is the subject.  If "you" are the subject, "I gave this to John and myself" then you are ok.  However, if anyone else, even GOD is the subject then it would be, "God gave this to John and me."

Don



You know, I have a friend who would be just the kind of guy to argue with you that 'I' would be the proper formal, etc.  He falls into that 'ignorant f***' category.


...in no particular order
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Grandma Bear
Posted: March 25th, 2009, 11:29pm Report to Moderator
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I don't even know what yo people are talking about!!


Ignorance is bliss!  


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Higgonaitor
Posted: March 26th, 2009, 1:06am Report to Moderator
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From the thread of my old simply-scripter script:


Quoted from Don
  Funny, the whole "'I' is a 'subjective pronoun', 'me' is an 'objective pronoun'" is one of my freakish pet peeves that sets me off and leaves everyone around me saying, "What got into him?"


From just now:


Quoted from Don
Anyone who uses "I" as a subjective pronoun and claims it to be "formal" is an ignorant f***.  


Don


What got into him?







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mcornetto
Posted: March 26th, 2009, 1:45am Report to Moderator
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John and I need grammar classes.
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George Willson
Posted: March 26th, 2009, 10:16am Report to Moderator
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Quoted from Xavier
Wow you must have been bored to actually go over this.  


I have a story that happens in the late 1700's, and I have spent a lot of time at etymonline.com to ensure that every word they speak existed in that time period. Granted, I use modern syntax, but at the very least, I'm not using modern words. OK is one of those words that I cannot use anywhere in the dialogue because it didn't exist at the time.


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stevie
Posted: March 26th, 2009, 4:34pm Report to Moderator
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As Manuel would say....K?



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jayrex
Posted: March 26th, 2009, 4:39pm Report to Moderator
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Has anyone how of Fortean Times?

They do a section on dead words, how the word came into existence, how and when it was used and why people stopped speaking it.

I thought this maybe of some interest to people here.


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